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Guide to special events and happenings in the 3 Grand Divisions of Tennessee.

"Sarah Kanary" wrote in message
news:A945F305-7E62-E0D9-2792-5178D0A4E606@srcbs.org...
> Rufus wrote:
>> "Other translators" - that's a laugh. We know of whom you speak and such
>> a
>> reference holds zero credibility with Christians.
>
> Why? Translating it 'the Word was God' does not hold "zero"
> credibility with the Christian Congragation of Jehovah's Witnesses.

Sarah, I hate to tell you this, but the Christian Congregation of Jehovah's
Witnesses holds zero credibility with Christians.



It
> actually can be translated either way. There is no scholar that
> Christians dismiss as having "zero" credibility; that is a paranoid,
> bigoted approach that does not come from Christian reasonableness. The
> English word "god" does not define elohim/theos, it is the other way
> around.
>
>> Wiggle out of this one: If you insist that the presence or absence of a
>> preposition, in this case when applied to the Godhood of Christ, is
>> significant, consider that Thomas, in the very same book, calls Christ
>> "ho
>> theos."
>
> Jn 1:1 is a unique verse, for nowhere else does 'theos' appear twice in
> the same sentence, once with, and once without, the definite article.
>
> And the Word was WITH the God. If I'm with you, am I you?
>
>>
>> John 20:28 - Thomas said to him, "My Lord and my God!" - "ho kurios mou
>> kai
>> ho theos mou."
>>
>> There it is, Christ is called "ho theos." You will of course, attempt to
>> claim that Thomas was just exclaiming to God the Father. Unfortunately,
>> that would nullify the statement that he said it * TO* Christ. It would
>> also make Thomas a blasphemer because he would have been taking the name
>> of
>> the Lord in vain. It would have been the ancient equivalent of someone
>> today seeing something really interesting and going "Jesus Christ, that's
>> amazing!".
>
> Exclamations of praise do not constitute blasphemy. Especially since
> Thomas WAS actually seeing the Risen Lord Jesus Christ, the only
> Mediator between God and men. Something most definitely more than just
> "really interesting", yes?
>
>>
>> So, which is it - is Christ "*The* God" or is Thomas a blasphemer?
>
> Based on how elohim/theos is used in the rest of the Bible, as well as
> the rest of John, the answer is: "none of the above."
>
> Since Thomas had repeatedly seen Jesus pray (proseuchomai)to the same
> God Thomas did (Jehovah, there could be no other), even calling Him
> 'the *only* true God' it is quite *unlikely* Thomas was actually
> addressing Jesus as Almighty God.
>
> In fact, if mere men like King David could be addressed as 'ho theos'
> in the LXX(1 Sam. 20:12)