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In article <090.24.07.05.163247000@srcbs.org>, basicallyblues says...
>"By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was
>not found, because God had translated him: for before his
>translation he had this testimony, that he pleased God" (Heb.11:5 KJV).
>
>The translators of the King James Bible translated the two Greek words
>'metathesis' and 'metatithemi', which means 'change of place' and 'put
> in another place' into the English word 'translated.' This is
>probably because the theology of their day taught that when righteous
>people died they were taken to heaven.
No, it is because 'translate" is a perfect translation of
METATIQHMI. Nor was this original with them: they were following the
very excellent precedent of the Vulgate.
> However, by no stretch of the
>imagination can the two Greek words 'metathesis' and 'metatithemi',
>which are used in Hebrews 11:5, convey the concept of Enoch being
>transported to heaven.
You would not be so sure of this if you did not insist on
eisegesis. For it does not take much 'imagination' at all. On the
contrary: all it takes is a little familiarlity with the way Scripture
uses langauge.
> The Bible does not say that Enoch went to
>heaven when he was translated. Instead, it says he "was not found."
>According to Strong's, Thayer's and Bullinger's Greek Lexicons,
>"translate" means "to put or place in another place, to transport, to
>transfer."
And what "other place" could they mean? There is only one real
alternative: that is heaven.
> Nowhere in the Scripture does "translate" mean to make
>immortal.
It does here. Nobody takes the dead to heaven.
>The same Greek word is rendered "carried over" in Acts 7:16 where
>Jacob's body was "translated" or "transported" to Sychem, where he was
>buried. The Scriptures say Jacob was translated to the place of burial.
>God took Enoch and buried him somewhere so as not to be found, just as
>he did with the body of Moses in Deuteronomy 34:6. No man knows where
>Moses' or Enoch's grave is. God hid them for reasons known only to Him.
But none of this proves that 'translate' cannot mean "take to heaven
without dying". For the semantic range of 'translate' is quite wide.
>Notice another proof that "translate" does not mean to make immortal.
How can you say 'another' when there hasn't been one yet? Your
'proofs' all share the same fallacy: they all ignore the _multiple_
meanings of METATIQHMI. As long as you keep ignoring this, you can
prove NOTHING.
>Paul wrote that the Father "hath delivered us from the power of
>darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son"
>(Colossians 1:13). The apostle Paul says that he was already
>translated, even though he w