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Bob Felts wrote:
> wrote:
>
> > Aquinas wrote that holy "
>
> More gobbledygook.
>
However, it was you who pointed the discussion to Aquinas as if he had
the answer. I replied with an overview emphasized the fact that his
Aritstolean presuppositions betrayed a true Biblical position.
>
> > Sin is 'sinning' or 'to sin' but holiness is not 'holying' or 'to
holy.'
>
> Sure it does. To be holy is to be set apart. There's a verb in
there
> somewhere.
>
Where?
>
> > Only the passive is employed in the latter case: 'to be holy' or
'to
> > become holy.' But both the active and passive are employed in the
former.
> > Man is willing in holiness and he is willing in sin. But the
willingness
> > in the first case is complex.
>
> Only because you insist in trying to set free that which isn't free.
>
> > God works in man to will (Phil 2:13).
>
> "According to _His_ good pleasure." No freedom for man there.
>
> > The willingness in the second case in simple. Man works alone.
>
> Not possible, "for in Him we live and move and have our being."
(Acts
> 17:28)
>
I don't know which to conclude. Either you read what I wrote too fast
and per chance presupposed the conclusion, or you don't really
understand the issue being discussed. Read again. What was being
refered to as the "second case?"
>
> > In the first instance, the human will harmonizes with the divine
will. In
> > the second, the human will antagonizes the divine will. In the
first
> > instance, the voluntariness is receipient: "What have you that you
did
> > not receive?" (1 Cor 4:7; Rom 11: 35); "you have received the
spirit of
> > adoption" (rom 8:15). In the second instance, the voluntariness is
self
> > originating."
> >
> > Does that help explain my point?
>
> While it may explain it, it doesn't stand up to scrutiny.
>
I think you have not grasped the distinctions between the first and the
second.

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The King James Bible
http://www.salvationsplan.com/bible/

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Matthew Johnson wrote:
> In article <153.03.15.05.894719000@srcbs.org>, peter.gibbs@charter.net says...