Matthew Johnson wrote:
> In article <161.55.12.05.287540000@srcbs.org>, Paul Chapman says...
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> [snip]
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>>From these verses, the reward of the wicked will be everlasting
>>destruction--a death from which there will be no resurrection.
>
>
> No, it is NOT "from these verses". You have assumed far more than was in those
> verses to reach this conclusion.

OK, so let's take another look:

"Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of
the Lord, and from the glory of his power;" 2Thes 1:9

"Who" refers to those "that know not God and obey not the gospel" (v.8)
and which I have assumed are "the wicked."

The verse says they (the wicked) "shall be punished." This phrase is
translated from "dikEn tisousin"--literally "penalty will pay"

What penalty will the wicked pay? Ans: "everlasting destruction."

Now, taking "The wages of sin is death..." Rom 6:23

Wages means "reward", or "due payment". Those who serve sin will
receive death as due payment.

Put this together with my conclusions from 2 Thes 1:9:

The wicked will pay the penalty--everlasting destruction.
The wicked will receive death as due payment for sin.

So then (now pull me up if you think I am drawing too long a bow here):

The wicked receiving death as due payment for sin is the same as the
wicked paying the penalty--everlasting destruction.

Therefore, The due penalty (reward) for the wicked is everlasting
destruction.

The phrase "a death from which there will be no resurrection" I
extrapoloted from the expression, "everlasting destruction." Because
the destruction of the wicked will last forever, there will be no
"re-construction". They will be dead forever, with no hope of rising
again.

>
>>What is death? As I said in my previous post, the Bible consistently
>>puts forth the idea that death is a state of total unconsciousness--no
>>thoughts, no device, no wisdom, no knowledge.
>
>
> No, it is not consistent about this. Now it may _appear_ to be consistent about
> this, if you rely entirely on the _majority_ of _Old Testament_ passages. But
> then you still have the witch of Endor to contend with.

Not at all. The practice of necromancy is condemned as an abomination
by God (Deut 18:11). Do you honestly believe that, assuming he was
conscious, Samuel would be party to witchcraft to communicate with Saul?

If this were the case then nothing would be wrong with seances!

I do not believe it is the case, as the dead are "asleep" until the
resurrection:

"So man lieth down, and riseth not: till the heavens [be] no more, they
shall