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In article <085.18.08.05.846293000@srcbs.org>, basicallyblues says...

>The Kenosis of Jesus Christ: What Does It Tell Us about the Son of God?
>
>One subject that has continually initiated considerable controversy is
>the issue of Jesus Christ's kenosis. The word kenosis (in this context)
>refers to the "self-emptying" of the heavenly Logos, who was with God
>"in the beginning" (Ryrie 260-262). It pertains to the act of
>self-negation whereby the Son of God "became flesh" and resided among
>men (John 1:14). This theological doctrine that we will now examine in
>some detail finds its origins in the "hymn" recorded at Phil
>2:5-11.

This is a pretty good beginning of the discussion of the topic. But I
am not sure why you think it finds its _origins_ in Phil 2:5-11. After
all, there are enough references to 'kenosis' (although using
different words to express it) throughout the Gospels, too. In fact,
you mention one of the more famous such passages below.

>The term "kenotic" derives from the Greek kenoo, which can mean: "to
>empty."

Unless the reader already knows what verb you are talking about, he
will not be able to find it based on _that_ spelling! The first 'o' is
omicron, the second omega. It is Strong's #2758.

> Apparently, Theodotion was the first theologue to use "kenosis"

'Theologue'? What is a 'theologue'? And why are you so sure it was
Theodotion himself? Theodotion was no _Christian_ theologian, he was
merely a translator. And much of what has been traditionally
attributed to him is now known to be much earlier than his time.

Are you really unaware of what a _pretentious_ tone you have given to
your own post with the inappropriate use of outdated words like
'theologue'?

>as a theological term in his translation of Isa 34:11. However, both
>Gregory Nazianzus and Cyril of Alexandria use the word to express the
>action whereby Christ "emptied himself." Additionally, the Latin
>Vulgate renders Phil 2:7 with the phrase "semetipsum exinanivit,"
>while Tertullian uses the formula "exhausit semetipsum" in his work
>Adversus Marcionem. The real concern for each of these thinkers seems
>to have been: 'In what sense did Christ empty himself'? Thus we seem
>justified in viewing the term kenosis as an emptying, and in our
>discussion it will refer to the Son of God's self-emptying described
>in Phil 2:6-7. Admittedly, there have been many theories and a
>number of approaches to Christological kenoticism. We shall examine
>some of these theories and then analyze the locus classicus of the
>kenotic event: Phil 2:6-7.

>The Traditional View of Christ's Kenosis
>
>Philippians 2:6ff has often been associated with the so-called
>hypostatic union of Christ Jesus.

But wait a minute: once you introduce